Sorry, that was vague. What I mean is, that was presented in my Hebrew Bible class as an example of the way biases corrupt translation—the standards of beauty at the time required black beauty to be an exception, hence the “but” when the text is offering no such logical contrast. Is that a misconception? About beauty standards, I mean?
Yes, actually whether the word is supposed to be “and” or “but” is a topic I’ve seen bandied about, but I’m not a linguist and I don’t have anything definitive on it either way. If you read the text, the “But” doesn’t make much sense, as you say.
If any linguist followers would like to weigh in on that, go for it!